Which Of The Following Is Not Equal To 1.20 Atm? Question 1 Options: 17.6 Psi 912 Torr 1.22 Bar 120 Kpa (2024)

Physics High School

Answers

Answer 1

Answer:

17.6 psi

is my answer I guess

Answer 2

Answer:

1.22bar

Hope this helps

Which Of The Following Is Not Equal To 1.20 Atm? Question 1 Options: 17.6 Psi 912 Torr 1.22 Bar 120 Kpa (1)

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The ocean floor is mapped by sending sound waves (sonar) downward and measuring the time it takes for their echo to return. From this information, the ocean depth can be calculated if one knows that sound travels at 1531 in seawater.
If a ship sends out sonar pulses and records their echo 3.35 later, how deep is the ocean floor at that point, assuming that the speed of sound is the same at all depths?
in m

Answers

The ocean floor is estimated to be approx 5,040 meters deep at the point where the sonar pulse was sent, based on the recorded echo delay of 3.35 seconds and assuming a constant speed of sound in seawater.

To calculate the depth of the ocean floor, we can use the formula: depth = (speed of sound × time) / 2. Given that the speed of sound in seawater is 1531 m/s and the recorded echo delay is 3.35 seconds, we can substitute these values into the formula.

depth = (1531 m/s * 3.35 s) / 2 = 2572.685 meters

However, this calculation provides the round-trip distance, which includes both the downward and upward journey of the sonar pulse. To find the actual depth of the ocean floor, we need to divide this value by 2:

depth = 2572.685 meters / 2 = 1286.3425 meters

Therefore, the ocean floor is estimated to be approximately 1286.3425 meters deep at the point where the sonar pulse was sent.

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the frequency of the fundamental of the guitar string is 320 hz . at what speed v do waves move along that string? express your answer in meters per second. view available hint(s)for part c activate to select the appropriates template from the following choices. operate up and down arrow for selection and press enter to choose the input value typeactivate to select the appropriates symbol from the following choices. operate up and down arrow for selection and press enter to choose the input value type v

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The speed of the waves in the guitar string is 1416.93 meters per second.

To find the speed of the waves in the guitar string, we need to use the formula:

v = f * L / T

where v is the speed of the waves, f is the frequency of the waves, L is the length of the string, and T is the time period of the waves.

First, we need to find the time period of the waves. The time period is given by:

T = 2 * pi * f * L

where f is the frequency of the waves, L is the length of the string, and pi is the mathematical constant pi.

Substituting the given values into this equation, we get:

T = 2 * pi * 320 Hz * 0.00152 meters = 0.00233 seconds

Therefore, the time period of the waves is 0.00233 seconds.

Next, we can find the speed of the waves by plugging in the values into the formula:

v = 320 Hz * 0.00233 seconds / 0.00233 seconds = 1416.93 meters per second

Therefore, the speed of the waves in the guitar string is 1416.93 meters per second.

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an electron is accelerated through some potential difference to a final kinetic energy of 2.15 mev. using special relativity, determine the ratio of the electron's speed to the speed of light .

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The ratio of the electron's speed to the speed of light is approximately 0.978.

According to special relativity, the kinetic energy of a particle with rest mass m can be expressed as K = (gamma - 1)mc^2, where gamma is the Lorentz factor and c is the speed of light.

We can rearrange this equation to solve for gamma: gamma = 1 + K/(mc^2).

Plugging in the given values, we get gamma = 2.076. The ratio of the electron's speed to the speed of light can be found using the equation v = c/sqrt(gamma^2 - 1). Plugging in gamma, we get v = 0.978c.

Therefore, the electron is traveling at approximately 97.8% of the speed of light.

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Acceleration is greatest for a satellite in elliptical orbit when it is
farthest from Earth.
closest to Earth.
same at both places

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Acceleration is greatest for a satellite in an elliptical orbit when it is closest to Earth.

According to Kepler's second law, a satellite in an elliptical orbit sweeps out equal areas in equal time intervals. This means that the satellite covers more distance in a given time when it is closer to Earth.

The acceleration of a satellite in orbit is determined by the gravitational force exerted by Earth. Since gravitational force decreases with distance, the satellite experiences a stronger gravitational force when it is closer to Earth. As a result, the acceleration of the satellite is greatest when it is closest to Earth.

Therefore, the statement "Acceleration is greatest for a satellite in an elliptical orbit when it is closest to Earth" is correct.

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a positive charge might be placed at one of two different locations in a region where there is a uniform electric field, as shown below.

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Answer:

A positive charge might be placed at one of two different locations in a region where there is a uniform electric field, as shown.

Explanation:

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calculate the frequency separation of the nuclear spin levels of a 13c nucleus in a magnetic field of 15.4 t given that the magnetogyric ratio is 6.73 × 10−7 t−1s−1.

Answers

The frequency separation of the nuclear spin levels can be calculated using the formula: frequency separation = magnetogyric ratio × magnetic field.

In this case, the magnetogyric ratio is 6.73 × 10−7 T−1s−1, and the magnetic field is 15.4 T. To find the frequency separation, multiply these values:
Frequency separation = (6.73 × 10−7 T−1s−1) × (15.4 T)
Frequency separation ≈ 1.03622 × 10^6 s^-1


Summary: The frequency separation of the nuclear spin levels of a 13C nucleus in a magnetic field of 15.4 T is approximately 1.03622 × 10^6 s^-1.

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what would a breadth first search of the following graph return, if the search began at node 0? assume that nodes are examined in numerical order when there are multiple edges.0, 1, 1, 1,... 0, 1, 5, 2, 3, 4, 6 0, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 0,2,1,3,5, 4, 6

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A breadth-first search (BFS) of the graph starting at node 0 would return: 0, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6.

When performing a BFS, the algorithm explores all the neighboring nodes at the current depth before moving on to nodes at the next depth level. If we start at node 0, we first examine its neighbors in numerical order, which is node 1.

After that, we move to the next depth level and examine the neighbors of node 1, which are nodes 2, 3, and 4. Next, we examine the neighbors of node 2, and since all of its neighbors have already been visited, we move on to nodes 3 and 4, whose neighbors have also been visited. Finally, we visit the neighbors of nodes 5 and 6, which have no additional neighbors. The final order of nodes visited is 0, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6.

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The kinetic energy of an electron is 55% of its total energy. Find the RELATIVISTIC MOMENTUM of the electron. The rest mass of an electron is kg. (answer is in kg.m/s)

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The relativistic momentum of the electron is 1.18 x 10^-22 kg.m/s.

To find the relativistic momentum of the electron, we need to use the formula:

p = γmv

where p is the momentum, γ is the Lorentz factor, m is the rest mass of the electron, and v is the velocity of the electron.

We are given that the kinetic energy of the electron is 55% of its total energy. We can use the equation for the total energy of a particle:

E^2 = (mc^2)^2 + (pc)^2

where E is the total energy, m is the rest mass, c is the speed of light, and p is the momentum.

If we solve for p, we get:

p = sqrt((E^2/c^2) - m^2c^2)

We know that the kinetic energy of the electron is 55% of its total energy, so we can write:

K = 0.55E

We also know that the rest mass of the electron is 9.11 x 10^-31 kg.

Using these values, we can solve for the total energy:

K = (E - mc^2)

0.55E = (E - (9.11 x 10^-31 kg)(299792458 m/s)^2)

Solving for E, we get:

E = 1.03 x 10^-14 J

Now we can find the momentum using the equation we derived earlier:

p = sqrt((E^2/c^2) - m^2c^2)

p = sqrt(((1.03 x 10^-14 J)^2/(299792458 m/s)^2) - (9.11 x 10^-31 kg)^2(299792458 m/s)^2)

p = 1.18 x 10^-22 kg.m/s

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A parallel-plate capacitor is formed from two 6.0-cm-diameter electrodes spaced 2.0 mm apart. The electric field strength inside the capacitor is 1.0×10^6 N/C. What is the charge (in nC) on each electrode?

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The charge on each electrode of the parallel-plate capacitor is approximately 23.59 nC.

To find the charge on each electrode of the parallel-plate capacitor, we can use the formula relating electric field strength (E) and the charge (Q) and capacitance (C) of a capacitor:

E = Q / (ε0 * A)

Where:

E is the electric field strength,

Q is the charge on the electrode,

ε0 is the vacuum permittivity (ε0 = 8.85 x[tex]10^-12 C^2/Nm^2[/tex]),

A is the area of the electrode.

Given:

Electric field strength (E) = [tex]1.0 x 10^6 N/C[/tex]

Diameter of the electrodes = 6.0 cm = 0.06 m (radius = 0.03 m)

Distance between the electrodes (d) = 2.0 mm = 0.002 m

Area of the electrode (A) = [tex]πr^2[/tex] = π(0.0[tex]3^2[/tex]) = 0.002826 [tex]m^2[/tex]

We can rearrange the equation to solve for the charge (Q):

Q = E * ε0 * A

Substituting the given values:

Q = [tex](1.0 x 10^6 N/C) * (8.85 x 10^-12 C^2/Nm^2) * (0.002826 m^2)[/tex]

Q ≈ 2.359 x [tex]10^-8 C[/tex]

To express the charge in nanoCoulombs (nC), we can convert the charge to nC:

Q_nC = Q * 10^9

Q_nC ≈ 23.59 nC

Therefore, the charge on each electrode of the parallel-plate capacitor is approximately 23.59 nC.

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the distance between an object and its image formed by a diverging lens is 5.10 cm. the focal length of the lens is -3.20 cm. find (a) the image distance and (b) the object distance.

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(a) The image distance is approximately 5.10 cm.

(b) The object distance is approximately 1.9659 cm.

To solve the problem, we can use the lens formula, which relates the object distance (u), image distance (v), and focal length (f) of a lens:

1/f = 1/v - 1/u

Given:

Focal length (f) = -3.20 cm (negative sign indicates a diverging lens)

Image distance (v) = 5.10 cm

(a) Finding the image distance (v):

We know that the focal length (f) and image distance (v) are given. Plugging these values into the lens formula, we can solve for the object distance (u).

1/f = 1/v - 1/u

Substituting the given values:

1/(-3.20 cm) = 1/(5.10 cm) - 1/u

Simplifying:

-0.3125 cm^(-1) = 0.1961 cm^(-1) - 1/u

Rearranging the equation:

1/u = 0.1961 cm^(-1) + 0.3125 cm^(-1)

1/u = 0.5086 cm^(-1)

Taking the reciprocal:

u = 1 / (0.5086 cm^(-1))

u = 1.9659 cm

Therefore, the object distance is approximately 1.9659 cm.

(b) Finding the object distance (u):

We have already found the object distance (u) in the previous step.

Object distance (u) ≈ 1.9659 cm.

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A student adds two vectors with magnitudes of 200 and 40. Which one of the following is the only possible choice for the magnitude of the resultant? a.all of the above are possible b.40 c.200 d.100 e.260

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The magnitude of the resultant can be calculated as follows: Resultant = sqrt(200^2 + 40^2) = 204.8

The magnitude of the resultant of two vectors is determined by the vector addition. When two vectors are added, their magnitudes can add up, subtract, or cancel out depending on their directions. In this case, the magnitudes of the vectors are 200 and 40, respectively. The only way to obtain the magnitude of the resultant is by using the Pythagorean theorem, which states that the magnitude of the resultant is the square root of the sum of the squares of the magnitudes of the two vectors.

Therefore, the magnitude of the resultant can be calculated as follows:

Resultant = sqrt(200^2 + 40^2) = 204.8

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Suppose you would like to cross a 209-foot wide river in a boat. Assume that the boat can travel 35 mph relative to the water and that the current is flowing west at the rate of 6 mph.
If the bearing is chosen so that the boat will land at a point exactly across from its starting point, how long will it take for the boat to make the crossing? Give your answer to the nearest second.

Answers

To cross the 209-foot wide river and land directly across from the starting point, the boat should choose a bearing that compensates for the westward current.

To determine the time required for the crossing, we can break down the boat's motion into two components: the speed across the river and the speed due to the current. Since the boat needs to land directly across from its starting point, it should choose a bearing that compensates for the westward current.

The speed across the river is the boat's speed relative to the water, which is 35 mph. The distance to be covered is 209 feet. To convert this distance from feet to miles, we divide it by 5,280 (the number of feet in a mile), resulting in approximately 0.0396 miles.

The speed due to the current is 6 mph in the westward direction. To find the effective speed across the river, we subtract the speed due to the current from the speed across the river: 35 mph - 6 mph = 29 mph.

To find the time required for the crossing, we divide the distance across the river by the effective speed: 0.0396 miles ÷ 29 mph ≈ 0.0014 hours. Converting this time to seconds by multiplying by 3,600 (the number of seconds in an hour), we get approximately 5 seconds. Rounding to the nearest second, it will take approximately 9 seconds for the boat to make the crossing.

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It takes 49 seconds for the boat to cross the river.

we need to consider the velocity of the boat and the effect of the current. Let's break down the problem and calculate the time it takes for the boat to cross the river.

Determine the effective velocity of the boat relative to the ground:

The boat's velocity relative to the ground is the vector sum of its velocity relative to the water and the velocity of the current. Since the boat is traveling at 35 mph relative to the water and the current is flowing at 6 mph in the opposite direction, the effective velocity of the boat relative to the ground is 35 mph - 6 mph = 29 mph.

Calculate the time it takes to cross the river:

The distance across the river is given as 209 feet. We need to convert this distance to the same unit as the boat's effective velocity, which is miles per hour. There are 5280 feet in a mile, so the distance across the river is 209/5280 miles.

To calculate the time, we divide the distance by the velocity:

Time = Distance / Velocity = (209/5280) miles / 29 mph.

Calculating this expression gives us the time in hours. To convert it to seconds, we need to multiply by 3600 (the number of seconds in an hour):

Time (in seconds) = (209/5280) miles / 29 mph * 3600 seconds/hour.

Evaluating this expression gives us the time it takes for the boat to make the crossing in seconds. Rounding to the nearest second, we obtain the final answer.

By performing the calculations, the time it takes for the boat to cross the river is approximately 49 seconds.

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a spring of length l and spring constant k is standing on one end a block of mass m is placed on the spring compresssing it. what is the total lenght

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Total length of the compressed spring can be calculated using Hooke's Law.

Hooke's Law states that the force exerted by a spring is proportional to its displacement from the equilibrium position, which can be expressed as F = -kx, where F is the force, k is the spring constant, and x is the displacement. When a block of mass m is placed on the spring, it exerts a force equal to its weight, mg, causing the spring to compress. We can set up the equation mg = kx and solve for the displacement x.

Summary: To find the total length of the compressed spring, first calculate the displacement x by using the equation mg = kx. Then, subtract the displacement x from the original length l to get the total length of the compressed spring.

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1) Sketch a walking model and a running model. List four events that occur in a walking cycle of one leg, and four events that occur in a running cycle of one leg. (5 pts) 2) Write the governing equation of ground reaction force based on 2nd Newtonian Law. Write the governing equations of forward kinetic energy and gravitational potential energy during walking. (5pts)

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Walking and running are distinct forms of locomotion characterized by different movement patterns and energy dynamics. During walking, the forward kinetic energy is governed by the equation 1/2 mv^2.

In walking, the cyclic movement of one leg consists of four events. Firstly, during heel strike, the heel of the foot makes initial contact with the ground. Secondly, the foot continues to roll forward until it reaches foot flat, where the entire foot is in contact with the ground. Thirdly, at midstance, the leg is directly under the body, and the body's weight is supported by that leg. Finally, during toe-off, the heel lifts off the ground, and the leg propels forward for the next step.

In running, the cycle of one leg is more dynamic. It begins with initial contact, where the foot strikes the ground, usually with the midfoot or forefoot. This is followed by the loading response, during which the leg and foot absorb and distribute the forces generated by impact. Next is the midstance phase, where the body's weight is primarily supported by the stance leg. Finally, during propulsion, the leg pushes off the ground, generating forward momentum for the next stride.

The governing equation for ground reaction force is derived from Newton's second law of motion, which states that force is equal to mass multiplied by acceleration (F = ma). In the context of locomotion, the ground reaction force represents the force exerted by the ground on the leg or foot. This force is equal in magnitude but opposite in direction to the force exerted by the leg or foot on the ground.

During walking, the forward kinetic energy is determined by the equation 1/2 [tex]mv^2[/tex] , where m represents the mass of the moving object (e.g., leg) and v denotes its velocity. This equation describes the energy associated with the leg's forward motion. Gravitational potential energy during walking is governed by the equation mgh, where m is the mass of the object, g is the acceleration due to gravity, and h represents the height of the center of mass of the leg above a reference point, such as the ground. This equation describes the energy associated with the leg's position relative to the ground and the Earth's gravitational field.

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unlawful speed resulting in a crash will result in __ points being added.

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Unlawful speed resulting in a crash can result in various points being added, depending on the severity of the offense and the state's specific laws.

The number of points that will be added to a driver's license for unlawful speed resulting in a crash will vary depending on the specific laws of the state in which the offense occurred. In general, a traffic violation resulting in an accident is considered more serious than a simple speeding ticket and can result in higher fines and more points being added to the driver's license. The number of points added may also depend on the severity of the crash, with more serious accidents resulting in more points. In some cases, the driver may also face criminal charges, such as reckless driving or vehicular manslaughter, which can result in more severe penalties such as fines, jail time, or license revocation. It is important for drivers to obey speed limits and other traffic laws to avoid accidents and potential legal consequences.

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a 4.00-m-long pole stands vertically in a freshwater lake having a depth of 2.45 m. the sun is 36.5° above the horizontal. determine the length of the pole's shadow on the bottom of the lake. m

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The length of the pole's shadow on the bottom of the lake is 3.37 m.

To solve this problem, we can use trigonometry. First, we need to find the distance from the top of the pole to the surface of the water. This can be found using the tangent function:

tan(36.5°) = height of pole / distance to surface

distance to surface = height of pole / tan(36.5°)
distance to surface = 4.00 m / tan(36.5°)
distance to surface = 4.00 m / 0.728
distance to surface = 5.49 m

Next, we need to find the distance from the surface of the water to the bottom of the lake:

distance to bottom = 2.45 m

Finally, we can use similar triangles to find the length of the pole's shadow on the bottom of the lake. The two triangles are similar because they have the same angles (90°, 36.5°, and 53.5°). The ratio of corresponding sides is:

(length of shadow) / (distance to bottom) = (distance to surface) / (height of pole)

(length of shadow) / (2.45 m) = (5.49 m) / (4.00 m)

Solving for (length of shadow), we get:

(length of shadow) = (2.45 m) x (5.49 m / 4.00 m)
(length of shadow) = 3.37 m

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approximately what percentage of solar radiation is used to power the water cycle?

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Approximately three percent of solar radiation is used to power the water cycle. The water cycle is a continuous process where water evaporates from the surface of the earth, rises into the atmosphere, and then falls back to the earth as precipitation. This process is powered by the sun's energy, which heats the surface of the earth and causes water to evaporate.

In the water cycle, solar radiation is absorbed by the earth's surface, which warms the air and causes it to rise. As the air rises, it cools and the water vapor condenses into clouds. These clouds then release precipitation in the form of rain, snow, or hail.

While only three percent of solar radiation is used to power the water cycle, this process is crucial for the survival of all life on earth. Without the water cycle, there would be no precipitation, and the earth would become a barren wasteland. Therefore, it is important to understand and protect this vital natural process.

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A copper measuring 20x30x10 cm is heated and its temperature is increased by 100°C.

By what amount will the volume of copper increase?

Answers

The volume of the copper will increase by 10.08 cm³ when it is heated and its temperature is increased by 100°C.

When the copper measuring 20x30x10 cm is heated and its temperature is increased by 100°C, the volume of the copper will increase. This increase in volume is due to the fact that the heat causes the atoms in the copper to vibrate more rapidly, which increases the space between them and therefore increases the volume of the copper.To calculate the amount by which the volume of copper will increase, we can use the formula for thermal expansion. The formula is given by:
ΔV = V₀αΔT
Where ΔV is the change in volume, V₀ is the initial volume of the copper, α is the coefficient of thermal expansion for copper, and ΔT is the change in temperature.
The coefficient of thermal expansion for copper is 16.8 × 10⁻⁶ /°C. Using the given dimensions of the copper (20x30x10 cm), we can calculate the initial volume of the copper:
V₀ = 20 cm × 30 cm × 10 cm = 6000 cm³
Substituting the values into the formula, we get:
ΔV = (6000 cm³) × (16.8 × 10⁻⁶ /°C) × (100°C) = 10.08 cm³

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an ideal gas expands in an adiabatic turbine from 1200 k and 950 kpa to 800 k. determine the turbine inlet volume flow rate of the gas, in m3/s, required to produce turbine work output at the rate of 650 kw. the average values of the specific heats for this gas over the temperature range and the gas constant are cp

Answers

The turbine inlet volume flow rate of the gas required to produce a turbine work output rate of 650 kW is 0.377[tex]m^3/s[/tex].

To solve this problem, we can use the first law of thermodynamics for a steady-state, adiabatic flow process:

W = m(h1 - h2)

We can assume that the gas behaves as an ideal gas, so we can use the ideal gas law:

PV = mRT

We can also use the relationship between specific enthalpy and temperature for an ideal gas:

h = cpT

Using these equations and assuming that the mass flow rate is constant across the turbine, we can derive an expression for the turbine inlet volume flow rate:

m = W / (h1 - h2)

V1 = mRT1 / P1

V2 = mRT2 / P2

Since the process is adiabatic, we can use the relationship between pressure and temperature for an adiabatic process:

[tex]P1V1^gamma = P2V2^gamma[/tex]

where gamma is the ratio of specific heats, cp/cv. For an ideal gas, gamma = cp/cv.

Solving for m and substituting into the expression for V1, we get:

V1 = WRT1 / P1(h1 - h2)

Substituting in the given values and using the average specific heat capacity at constant pressure for the temperature range, we get:

gamma = cp / (cp - R) = 1.4

cp = 1005 J/kg-K (for air at standard conditions)

T1 = 1200 K

P1 = 950 kPa

T2 = 800 K

h1 = cpT1 = 1.4 * 1005 J/kg-K * 1200 K = 1,681,200 J/kg

h2 = cpT2 = 1.4 * 1005 J/kg-K * 800 K = 1,123,200 J/kg

W = 650 kW = 650,000 J/s

V1 = (650,000 J/s)(287 J/kg-K)(1200 K) / (950,000 Pa)(1,681,200 J/kg - 1,123,200 J/kg)

= 0.377 [tex]m^3/s[/tex]

Therefore, the turbine inlet volume flow rate of the gas required to produce a turbine work output rate of 650 kW is 0.377 [tex]m^3/s[/tex].

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The shear formula is given as τ=vqit. which of the following is a proper unit of q?a. m^2b. m^4c. dimensionsd. me. m^2f. None of these

Answers

the correct answer is option a. m^2, as it is the proper unit for the second moment of area (q) in the shear formula.

In the shear formula, τ=vqit, q represents the area over which the shear force is applied. The units of q should be in square meters (m^2) to ensure that the overall unit of the formula is in Newtons per square meter (N/m^2) or Pascals (Pa). Therefore, option (e) m^2 is the proper unit of q. Option (a) m^2 is also correct but it is not specifically labeled as a unit.

Option (b) m^4 is incorrect because it is a unit of volume. Option (c) dimensions and option (d) me are not valid units of area. Lastly, option (f) None of these is incorrect since option (e) m^2 is the correct answer. The proper unit of q in the shear formula τ = vqit is "m^2".

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The regression equation is intended to be the "best fitting" straight line for a set of data. What is the criterion for the "best fitting"? The best-fitting line is determined by the error between the predicted 1.(Y,X,F,r) values 2.(from the distribution table, on the line, in the data) and the actual 3.(Y, X,F,r) values 4.(in the data, from the distribution table, on the line). The regression equation is determined by the line with the smallest 5.(standard error, total squared error, total error, mean absolute error). Please help me out and chose the correct answer provided in the parentheses. Please pick an answer that appears in parenthesis.

Answers

The best-fitting line in a regression equation is determined by the error between the predicted 1.(Y, X, F, r) values 2.

(from the distribution table, on the line, in the data) and the actual 3.(Y, X, F, r) values 4.(in the data, from the distribution table, on the line).

The regression equation is determined by the line with the smallest 5.(standard error, total squared error, total error, mean absolute error).


In summary, the criterion for the "best fitting" line in a regression equation is the line with the smallest total squared error.

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Let f(x) = xn/n and g(x) = x3f(x2/64). Let anxn be the taylor series of g about 0. The radius of convergence fot the taylor series for f is and the radius of convergence for the Taylor series for g is . Find each of the following coefficients for the Taylor series for g. a4 = a7 = a2n+3 = ak =

Answers

According to the given question, the coefficients for the Taylor series for g. a4 = a7 = a2n+3 = ak = (k+3)k(k-1)/(64*4*3*2).

The radius of convergence for the Taylor series for f can be found using the ratio test:

lim |(xn+1/n+1)/(xn/n)| = lim |(x(n+1))/((n+1)(n+1))| * |n/(xn)| = |x| lim (1/n) = 0

Therefore, the radius of convergence for f is 0.

To find the radius of convergence for the Taylor series for g, we can use the substitution u = x2/64, which gives us g(x) = (64u)3f(u) = 64x6f(x2/64). The radius of convergence for the Taylor series of g will be the same as the radius of convergence for the Taylor series of 64x6f(x2/64), which we can find using the ratio test:

lim |((64x6f(x2/64))(xn+1))/(64x6f(x2/64))(xn)| = lim |(xn+1)/(xn)(x2/64)| * |(xn/xn+1)(xn/xn+1)| = lim |(x2/64)(1/(n+1))| * |1| = 0

Therefore, the radius of convergence for the Taylor series for g is also 0.

To find the coefficients a4, a7, a2n+3, and ak for the Taylor series of g, we can use the formula for the nth coefficient of the Taylor series:

an = (1/n!) * g^(n)(0)

Since g(x) = x3f(x2/64), we have:

g^(n)(x) = 3x3f^(n)(x2/64) + 6x2f^(n+1)(x2/64) + 3xf^(n+2)(x2/64) + f^(n+3)(x2/64)

Setting x = 0, we get:

g^(n)(0) = 3(0)3f^(n)(0) + 6(0)2f^(n+1)(0) + 3(0)f^(n+2)(0) + f^(n+3)(0) = f^(n+3)(0)

Therefore, we can find the coefficients a4, a7, a2n+3, and ak by evaluating f^(n+3)(0) for the corresponding values of n:

a4 = f^(7)(0) = 0

a7 = f^(10)(0) = 0

a2n+3 = f^(2n+6)(0) = 0

ak = f^(k+3)(0) = (k+3)k(k-1)/(64*4*3*2)

Thus, we have:

a4 = a7 = a2n+3 = 0

ak = (k+3)k(k-1)/(64*4*3*2)

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in the double-slit experiment with light, suppose that the light source is turned on so briefly that only a single quantum of energy passes through the double slits. when it arrives at the screen, this energy is deposited group of answer choices all over the white interference bands that normally appear in the double-slit experiment. all over one of the white interference bands. at one small point, which could be anywhere on the screen. at one small point, lying directly behind the slit through which the energy came. at one small point within the white interference bands.

Answers

In the double-slit experiment with light, suppose that the light source is turned on so briefly that only a single quantum of energy passes through the double slits. when it arrives at the screen, this energy is deposited at one small point within the white interference bands.

What about light was demonstrated by the double-slit experiment?

According to the American Physical Society (opens in new tab) (APS), British polymath Thomas Young conducted the first double-slit experiment in 1801. His experiment proved that light waves interfered with one another and that it was a wave, not a particle.

In order to create a pattern of alternating dark and bright patches on the screen, waves diffract at each slit and then interfere in the space between the slits and the screen. The term "fringes" refers to these areas. The double slit experiment ultimately showed that electrons and all other quantum particles can exist as both particles and probability waves.

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the crankcase pressure regulator (cpr) puts a limit on the pressure that can return to the compressor.

Answers

The crankcase pressure regulator (CPR) is a device that restricts the pressure that can return to the compressor in order to prevent damage to the compressor.

In a refrigeration or air conditioning system, the compressor pumps refrigerant gas through the system. The refrigerant gas enters the compressor as a low-pressure vapor and is compressed into a high-pressure gas before it enters the condenser. As the gas is compressed, it heats up, so it needs to be cooled before it enters the condenser.

During the compression process, some of the refrigerant gas can leak past the piston rings and mix with the oil in the compressor crankcase. This can cause the pressure in the crankcase to increase, which can lead to oil leaks, seal failure, and other problems. The crankcase pressure regulator (CPR) restricts the pressure that can return to the compressor by controlling the flow of refrigerant gas and oil back into the compressor. This helps to prevent damage to the compressor and ensures that the system operates efficiently.

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a sample of helium is initially at 535 torr in a volume of 2.85 l. what is the density of this gas sample at 24.7 °c, in g/l?

Answers

The density of the helium gas sample at 24.7 °C is 0.0317 g/L.

To solve this problem, we need to use the Ideal Gas Law, which relates the pressure, volume, temperature, and number of moles of a gas:

PV = nRT

where P is the pressure in atmospheres, V is the volume in liters, n is the number of moles, R is the gas constant (0.08206 L·atm/mol·K), and T is the temperature in Kelvin.

First, we need to convert the initial pressure from torr to atm:

535 torr = 0.705 atm

Next, we need to convert the temperature from Celsius to Kelvin:

24.7 °C + 273.15 = 297.85 K

Now we can rearrange the Ideal Gas Law to solve for the number of moles:

n = PV/RT

n = (0.705 atm)(2.85 L)/(0.08206 L·atm/mol·K)(297.85 K)

n = 0.0904 mol

Finally, we can use the number of moles and the volume to calculate the density:

density = n/V

density = 0.0904 mol/2.85 L

density = 0.0317 g/L

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(3%) Problem 31: A certain heat engine has a power output of 9.1 kW and an efficiency of 21 %. The engine wastes 4500 J of energy in each cycle and converts the rest to work.
a) How much energy, in joules, does the engine absorb from the hot reservoir in each cycle?
b)How much time, in seconds, is required to complete one cycle?

Answers

The energy of engine absorb from the hot reservoir in each cycle is (9,100 J/s) / 0.21. 4500 J / (9,100 J/s) .The time is required to complete one cycle is 4500 J / (9,100 J/s).

(A) To determine the amount of energy absorbed by the engine from the hot reservoir in each cycle, we can use the equation for efficiency. The efficiency of the heat engine is given by the ratio of the useful work output to the energy input from the hot reservoir:

Efficiency = (Useful Work Output) / (Energy Input)

In this case, the efficiency is given as 21%, which can be expressed as 0.21. The power output of the engine is 9.1 kW. We can convert this to joules per second (J/s) by multiplying by 1000:

Power Output = 9.1 kW = 9,100 J/s

Now, we can rearrange the efficiency equation to solve for the energy input:

Energy Input = (Useful Work Output) / Efficiency

Energy Input = (9,100 J/s) / 0.21

Calculating this expression gives us the amount of energy the engine absorbs from the hot reservoir in each cycle.

(B) To determine the time required to complete one cycle, we can use the relationship between power and energy. Power is defined as the rate at which energy is transferred or transformed. In this case, we know the power output of the engine is 9.1 kW. To find the time, we need to divide the total energy wasted in each cycle (4500 J) by the power output:

Time = Energy Wasted / Power Output

Time = 4500 J / (9,100 J/s)

By evaluating this expression, we can find the time required to complete one cycle in seconds.

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How do I find orbital period without orbital speed and mass knowing 4 different radius?​

Answers

Explanation:

To find the orbital period of an object without knowing its orbital speed and mass, but knowing 4 different radii, you can use Kepler's third law.

Kepler's third law states that the square of the orbital period (T) of a planet or satellite is proportional to the cube of the semi-major axis (a) of its orbit. The semi-major axis is half of the longest diameter of the elliptical orbit.

The formula for Kepler's third law is:

T^2 = (4π^2 / GM) * a^3

Where T is the orbital period, G is the gravitational constant, M is the mass of the central body around which the object is orbiting, and a is the semi-major axis.

To use this formula, you need to know the semi-major axis of the orbit. If you have 4 different radii, you can calculate the semi-major axis by taking the average of the maximum and minimum radii.

Once you have the semi-major axis, you can plug it into the formula along with the other known values and solve for T. Keep in mind that the units of T will depend on the units used for G, M, and a.

vhat is the ph of a buffer solution that is 0.185 m in hypochlorous acid (hcio) ar chlorite? the ka of hypochlorous acid is 3.8 x 10-8 8 6.73 9.03 7.57 7.27

Answers

The pH of the buffer solution that is 0.185 M in hypochlorous acid (HCIO) or chlorite is 7.57. The correct option is c.

What is Buffer Solution?

A buffer solution is a type of aqueous solution that is able to resist changes in its pH value when small amounts of acids or bases are added to it. It consists of a combination of a weak acid and its conjugate base, or a weak base and its conjugate acid.

The presence of both the weak acid and its conjugate base (or weak base and its conjugate acid) in a buffer solution allows it to maintain a relatively stable pH. When an acid is added to the buffer solution, the weak base component of the buffer reacts with it, limiting the increase in acidity. Similarly, when a base is added, the weak acid component reacts with it, limiting the increase in alkalinity.

To determine the pH of the buffer solution, we need to consider the dissociation of hypochlorous acid (HCIO) and its conjugate base, chlorite ion (CIO⁻). The acid dissociation constant (Ka) for HCIO is given as 3.8 x 10⁻⁸.

Since HCIO is a weak acid, we can assume that it partially dissociates in water. In the buffer solution, we have both HCIO and CIO⁻ present.

The pH of a buffer solution is determined by the pKa of the weak acid and the ratio of the concentrations of the acid and its conjugate base.

Using the Henderson-Hasselbalch equation:

pH = pKa + log([CIO⁻]/[HCIO]),

where [CIO⁻] is the concentration of chlorite and [HCIO] is the concentration of hypochlorous acid.

In this case, the concentration of HCIO is 0.185 M, and since it is a 1:1 ratio, the concentration of CIO⁻ is also 0.185 M.

Substituting the values into the equation:

pH = -log(3.8 x 10⁻⁸) + log(0.185/0.185)

pH ≈ 7.57

Therefore, Option c is the right choice, the pH of the buffer solution is approximately 7.57.

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Complete question:
What is the ph of a buffer solution that is 0.185 m in hypochlorous acid (hcio) ar chlorite? the ka of hypochlorous acid is 3.8 x 10-8

a. 6.73

b. 9.03

c. 7.57

d, 7.27

the fact that you can see stars in the nighttime sky is evidence that

Answers

The fact that you can see stars in the nighttime sky is evidence that the Earth's atmosphere is transparent to visible light.

The Earth's atmosphere is composed of various gases, including nitrogen, oxygen, and trace amounts of other gases. These gases are not completely transparent to light, and they can scatter and absorb certain wavelengths of light. However, visible light, which is the range of electromagnetic radiation that we can see with our eyes, is mostly transmitted through the atmosphere without being absorbed or scattered too much. This is why we can see stars in the nighttime sky, as their light travels through the atmosphere and reaches our eyes relatively unimpeded. It is also important to note that the clarity of the nighttime sky can be affected by various factors, such as air pollution, cloud cover, and light pollution. Therefore, in areas with high levels of pollution or light interference, it may be more difficult to see stars in the nighttime sky.

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A certain delivery service offers both express and standard delivery. Seventy-five percent of parcels are sent by standard delivery and 25% are sent by express. Of those sent standard, 80% arrive the next day, and of those sent express, 95% arrive the next day. A record of parcel delivery is chosen at random from the company’s files.a. What is the probability that the parcel was shipped express and arrived the next day?b. What is the probability that it arrived the next day?c. Given that the package arrived the next day, what is the probability that is was sent express?d. Given that the package did not arrive the next day, what is the probability that is was sent standard?

Answers

a. The probability that the parcel was shipped express and arrived the next day is 0.25 * 0.95 = 0.2375.

b. The probability that the parcel arrived the next day can be calculated by considering both express and standard delivery:

0.25 * 0.95 + 0.75 * 0.80 = 0.2375 + 0.6 = 0.8375.

c. To find the probability that the package was sent express given that it arrived the next day, we can use Bayes' theorem. Let A represent the event "package sent express" and B represent the event "package arrived the next day":

P(A|B) = P(A) * P(B|A) / P(B).

Using the given information:

P(A|B) = (0.25 * 0.95) / 0.8375 = 0.2857.

d. To find the probability that the package was sent standard given that it did not arrive the next day, we again use Bayes' theorem. Let C represent the event "package sent standard" and D represent the event "package did not arrive the next day":

P(C|D) = P(C) * P(D|C) / P(D).

Using the given information:

P(C|D) = (0.75 * 0.20) / (1 - 0.8375) = 0.1613.

Find the probability?

a. The probability of a parcel being shipped express and arriving the next day is obtained by multiplying the probability of express shipment (0.25) with the probability of next day arrival for express parcels (0.95).

b. To calculate the probability of next day arrival, we consider both express and standard delivery. We multiply the probability of express shipment (0.25) with the probability of next day arrival for express parcels (0.95), and add it to the product of the probability of standard shipment (0.75) and the probability of next day arrival for standard parcels (0.80).

c. Bayes' theorem is used to find the probability of express shipment given that the package arrived the next day. We multiply the probability of express shipment (0.25) with the probability of next day arrival given express shipment (0.95) and divide it by the probability of next day arrival (0.8375).

d. Similarly, Bayes' theorem is used to find the probability of standard shipment given that the package did not arrive the next day.

We multiply the probability of standard shipment (0.75) with the probability of not arriving the next day given standard shipment (1 - 0.80) and divide it by the probability of not arriving the next day (1 - 0.8375).

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Which Of The Following Is Not Equal To 1.20 Atm? Question 1 Options: 17.6 Psi 912 Torr 1.22 Bar 120 Kpa (2024)

FAQs

What is not equal to 1 atm? ›

The correct answer is (a) 760. cm Hg. ( a ) 760 ⋅ cm Hg : This is not equal to 1 atm.

Which of the following is not equivalent to 1 atm? ›

Final answer:

The standard atmosphere (1 atm) is a unit of pressure defined as 101.325 kPa, 760 mm Hg, 14.7 psi, and 760 torr. Therefore, the option 10 cm Hg (option c) is not equivalent to 1 atm pressure.

Is 1 atm equal to 760 torr? ›

1 atm is equal to 760 torr. The atmospheric pressure(atm) is unit of the pressure within the atmosphere of Earth. At sea level the Earth's atmospheric pressure is 1 atm. The torr is an absolute-scale which is unit of pressure.

Which is not equal to 1 atmospheric pressure? ›

Answer and Explanation:

Except for 760 cm Hg, all of the other given choices can be converted to 1 atm. A pressure with 1 atm is also equal to 760 torrs, 14.7 psi, 29.9 inHg, and 101 kPa. The 760 cm Hg pressure is equal to 10 atm, not 1 atm.

Is 1 atm equal to 76? ›

Atmospheric pressure is measured by a barometer and barometer's height at normal temperature and pressure at sea level is 76 cm of Hg or 760 mm of mercury, which represents 1 atm.

Is 101.325 Torr equal to 1 atm? ›

1 atm = 101,325 Pascals = 760 mm Hg = 760 torr = 14.7 psi.

What is the pressure of 1 atm equal to? ›

One atmospheric pressure at sea level is equal to 760 cm of Hg.

What all values are equal to 1 atm of pressure? ›

The standard atmosphere (symbol: atm) is a unit of pressure defined as 101,325 Pa (1,013.25 hPa), which is equivalent to 1,013.25 millibars, 760 mm Hg, 29.9212 inches Hg, or 14.696 psi.

Is 1 atm standard pressure? ›

A standard atmosphere, abbreviated atm, is the unit of pressure equal to the average atmospheric pressure at sea level. Specifically 1 atm = 101,325 pascals, which is the SI unit of pressure.

Is torr smaller than atm? ›

Conversion factors

The torr is defined as 1/760 of one standard atmosphere, while the atmosphere is defined as 101325 pascals.

Is 1 atm an exact number? ›

1 atm is equal to 101.325 kPa or 14.7 psi, which corresponds to atmospheric pressure at mean sea level. In reality, atmospheric pressure varies quite widely with elevation, weather, temperature and humidity. For example, the atmospheric pressure in Denver, Colorado, is only approximately 12.1 psi.

How do you calculate 1 atm? ›

1 atm = 101325 Pascals = 760 mm Hg = 760 torr.

What is the value of 1 atm? ›

Pressure units and equivalencies
v t ePascalBar
(Pa)(bar)
1 atm≡ 1013251.01325
1 Torr133.3223684210.001333224
1 lbf/in26894.7572931680.068947573
3 more rows

What does 1 atmospheric pressure absolute to equal? ›

The value of atmospheric pressure at sea level is defined as 1 atm (1 atmosphere). This value is equivalent to 101,325 Pa, and 14.7 PSI.

What is the unit of 1 atmospheric pressure? ›

The SI unit of atmospheric pressure is Pascal (Pa). Another unit of atmospheric pressure is atm and 1 atm = 101325 Pa.

Is 1 atm equal to a temperature? ›

1 atm is a unit of measurement of pressure that is equivalent to the pressure exerted by the air at sea level at a temperature of 15 degrees Celsius, and it is averaged. One atmosphere is also equivalent to 1,013 millibars, or 760 millimeters of mercury.

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